As a non-economist, and perhaps viewing this too simply, I wonder if the problem would be somewhat solved if investment banks were not able to become holding companies and subject to prudential regulations. So the capital reserve requirements would apply only to commercial banks?
As a non-economist, and perhaps viewing this too simply, I wonder if the problem would be somewhat solved if investment banks were not able to become holding companies and subject to prudential regulations. So the capital reserve requirements would apply only to commercial banks?